Thanks for this.
Long-time staker, never contributed to discussions.
This proposal:
a. has a mechanism to reduce staking incentive above 50% staked; cool.
b. claims to be in the benefit of solo stakers; ??
One section argues that the current issuance curve is hostile to solo stakers:
“Solo stakers are forced out. Dilution erodes everyone’s real return as the ratio climbs, but solo stakers… cross into negative dilution-adjusted returns well before large operators…”
Most would agree.
However, later the proposal analyzes operator incentives primarily in terms of consensus issuance revenue:
“An operator’s income from consensus issuance is its share of the stake multiplied by the total amount issued.”
That seems to reduce to:
Operator consensus revenue = market share Ă— total issuance
My confusion is that this is a statement about revenue, whereas operators ultimately optimize for profit.
The protocol treats every validator the same, but the economics are not the same.
A solo staker may have materially higher effective costs due to hardware, operations, downtime risk, and (depending on jurisdiction) taxation. A large staking provider can spread many of those costs across thousands of validators and may have more favorable operational or tax structures.
If consensus issuance is reduced across the board, it seems plausible that the higher-cost participants become uneconomic before the lower-cost participants.
So the question I’m struggling with is:
What evidence or model supports the claim that lowering staking APR improves the composition of the validator set, rather than simply reducing the staking ratio while increasing concentration among the remaining validators?
I understand the argument that reducing issuance can reduce the equilibrium staking ratio. What I don’t yet understand is why that mechanism preferentially disadvantages large operators rather than solo stakers.
I’m asking this genuinely. It feels like there is either:
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an assumption I’m missing,
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a complementary mechanism elsewhere in the proposal, or
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empirical evidence that institutional staking demand is more yield-sensitive than solo staking demand.
If it’s (3), I’d be very interested in seeing that evidence, because it’s the step in the argument that I’m currently having trouble following.